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PostPosted: 23 Apr 2010 14:48 
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Just wondering why oral sex is wrong when a married couple is pregnant and can't procreate? Can anyone help me with this question. For some reason my last post was removed? I don't find this to be an inappropriate questions.

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PostPosted: 23 Apr 2010 14:52 
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Michael,

The post was removed because the moderators agreed the wording of the post might spark prurient interest. This follow-up is better.

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PostPosted: 23 Apr 2010 14:55 
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Thanks, thats understandable.

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PostPosted: 23 Apr 2010 15:00 
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michael_c wrote:
Just wondering why oral sex is wrong when a married couple is pregnant and can't procreate? Can anyone help me with this question. For some reason my last post was removed? I don't find this to be an inappropriate questions.


I have often wondered why hitting onself in the head with a hammer is wrong when a married couple is pregnant and can't procreate? Sometimes I too wonder why it is wrong to commit adultery when a married couple is pregnant and can't procreate?

Do you see any moral relative reasoning in these statements?

It is my understanding that what you speak of is not wrong as long as it is leading up to and or supporting the sexual activity between man and wife that remains open to procreation EVEN if pregnant...

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PostPosted: 23 Apr 2010 15:02 
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I cannot believe a Catholic Forum is discussing these things

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PostPosted: 23 Apr 2010 15:09 
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Not sure if I am exactly getting what you are saying Daniel. Can you or someone else clarify a little. I know oral sex is wrong because it does not allow for possibility of procreation when one can concieve. However, when the wife is pregnant, it is not possible to make another child. Sorry, I just need some guidance.

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PostPosted: 23 Apr 2010 15:16 
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Dean wrote:
Moderator Comment

Michael,

The post was removed because the moderators agreed the wording of the post might spark prurient interest. This follow-up is better.

Regards,
Dean C.
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Dean, my objection to this whole thread is the fact that it is posted on a Catholic forum where anyone of any age has access to the material.

Shouldn't topics like this be discussed in private with one's pastor?

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PostPosted: 23 Apr 2010 15:28 
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I wouldn't ask someone I really love to give "oral" sex, much less my wife and mother of my children. I would only do it if I knew my wife would do it out of love and affection and fully knowing. Anything less than that would simply be creepy. And I still think it is weird. That said I'm not married, but this is what I'd think. I'd say no under almost every circumstance.

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Jesper

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PostPosted: 23 Apr 2010 15:42 
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Moderator's comment:

The overall principles may be discussed. The specific mechanics may NOT be discussed. That is the difference between appropriate and inappropriate content in this thread. Regarding unbelief that such a thing is discussed in a Catholic forum, it is a big part of people's lives, including Catholic lives, and it is also one of the most misunderstood areas of morality, an area on which many pastors lead their flocks astray. It is therefore an important topic to discuss.

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PostPosted: 23 Apr 2010 15:43 
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mariazell wrote:
I cannot believe a Catholic Forum is discussing these things

A good question. This seems the sort of thing that is best handled by consulting a priest in private. That said, not all of us have good, faithful, educated, and orthodox priests accessible to us with whom we would be comfortable talking. So sometimes it is appropriate to discuss such issues in this format.

Michael,

The critically important principle to keep in mind about human sexuality is that it should ALWAYS be oriented toward procreation; toward participating with our God in creating new life. Even when it is not (humanly) possible, the proper ORIENTATION is toward procreation. Note the use of that term; orientation. Frequently we think of orientation as "pointing in the direction of". It is similar in this case. Even though it is not seemingly possible for procreation to occur, the proper orientation remains toward procreation and acts which are pursuant thereto.

Thus even in the circumstance you propose, such an act to full completion would be disordered and sinful, because it does not orient toward procreation.

I might give other examples which may illustrate the fallacy of thinking that the (apparent) lack of ability to procreate might make otherwise prohibited sexual activities acceptable:

"I am unmarried, so I cannot procreate, thus [any full sexual activity] is permissible"
"My wife is past menopause, so we cannot procreate, thus [normally prohibited sexual activity] is permissible"
"I am unable to father children due to some biochemical deficiency, so we cannot procreate, thus [normally prohibited sexual activity] is permissible"

I think you see what I'm getting at.

I would encourage you to discuss this with a good, orthodox priest who is well versed in Catholic sexual morality when you can, so that your questions can be fully answered.

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PostPosted: 23 Apr 2010 16:08 
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Because it's not just about procreation.

The marriage act is for the unification of the marriage. What you are asking about is designed for the gratification of one without any consideration for the other. It's not unititive, it's selfish.

I would suggest that you look into the writings of Christopher West. I know a few people on other boards who have found him to be helpful. I'm afraid I don't have a reference for a link or anything. Maybe someone else knows of a reliable website.

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PostPosted: 23 Apr 2010 16:10 
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mariazell wrote:
I cannot believe a Catholic Forum is discussing these things


If a person is legitimately confused about such issues, he needs to have a reliable source of information.

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PostPosted: 23 Apr 2010 16:12 
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Rose West wrote:
Because it's not just about procreation.

The marriage act is for the unification of the marriage. What you are asking about is designed for the gratification of one without any consideration for the other. It's not unititive, it's selfish.


I am totally in agreement with Rose on this one.

I have noticed it is not generally women asking these questions, like this one or the thread on NFP instead of chemical birth control. Is it women are more bashful or...?

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PostPosted: 23 Apr 2010 16:12 
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Quote:
It's not unititive, it's selfish.


Totally agree.

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PostPosted: 23 Apr 2010 16:22 
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michael_c wrote:
Not sure if I am exactly getting what you are saying Daniel. Can you or someone else clarify a little. I know oral sex is wrong because it does not allow for possibility of procreation when one can concieve. However, when the wife is pregnant, it is not possible to make another child. Sorry, I just need some guidance.



Jeff seems to have answered this and along with the answers of others you should have a pretty good grasp in general on this..

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PostPosted: 23 Apr 2010 16:27 
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I asked this question years ago since my wife and I are infertile. The straight dope is that you can do it as long as you complete the act within the marital embrace, which is within God's will. Any conclusion/act outside of the marital embrace is contrary to God's will and thus cannot be justified.

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PostPosted: 23 Apr 2010 16:28 
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Dove wrote:
Rose West wrote:
Because it's not just about procreation.

The marriage act is for the unification of the marriage. What you are asking about is designed for the gratification of one without any consideration for the other. It's not unititive, it's selfish.


I am totally in agreement with Rose on this one.

I have noticed it is not generally women asking these questions, like this one or the thread on NFP instead of chemical birth control. Is it women are more bashful or...?


My wife doesn't really care.

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PostPosted: 23 Apr 2010 16:43 
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michael_c wrote:
Just wondering why oral sex is wrong when a married couple is pregnant and can't procreate? Can anyone help me with this question. For some reason my last post was removed? I don't find this to be an inappropriate questions.
As I recall some of the intelligentsia at Catholic University tried to use this as a way to legitimize homosexuality just after Humanae Vitae. They argued something to the effect that since it was not procreative it was not covered by that encyclical. [As I once heard a 3-star general comment on a contractor's attempt to collect on a failed mission: "Give them A for effort, and D for smarts."; and he filed a claim against the contractor for failure to deliver.

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PostPosted: 23 Apr 2010 17:52 
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com6063 wrote:
I asked this question years ago since my wife and I are infertile. The straight dope is that you can do it as long as you complete the act within the marital embrace, which is within God's will. Any conclusion/act outside of the marital embrace is contrary to God's will and thus cannot be justified.

This is the standard answer that I have seen from Catholic sources. As I understand it, this also applies to fertile couples. The question of fertility is not relevant. What matters is that the marital act be completed in a way that is open to life.

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PostPosted: 23 Apr 2010 22:43 
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JayneK wrote:
This is the standard answer that I have seen from Catholic sources. As I understand it, this also applies to fertile couples. The question of fertility is not relevant. What matters is that the marital act be completed in a way that is open to life.

I do not understand how the act can be "open to life" if there is no possibility of conception.

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PostPosted: 23 Apr 2010 22:54 
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Is it also wrong then for a woman to arouse her husband by massaging his chest or with caresses? Is all touch wrong, if it is a means to arouse the husband? Is hugging wrong? Is arousing touch of any kind wrong? Is a man equally forbidden to arouse with touch? Of any kind?

How should sex work if one follows this principle fully?

God bless.

Jesper

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PostPosted: 24 Apr 2010 01:55 
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LASaxman wrote:
I do not understand how the act can be "open to life" if there is no possibility of conception.


David,

It would mean allowing the possibility of a miracle that God could work.

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PostPosted: 24 Apr 2010 02:31 
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Dean wrote:
Moderator's comment:

The overall principles may be discussed. The specific mechanics may NOT be discussed. That is the difference between appropriate and inappropriate content in this thread. Regarding unbelief that such a thing is discussed in a Catholic forum, it is a big part of people's lives, including Catholic lives, and it is also one of the most misunderstood areas of morality, an area on which many pastors lead their flocks astray. It is therefore an important topic to discuss.



OK Dean, point taken.

I just find these issues very personal between two people.

I still have to learn that although I may be right for myself, doesnt mean others are wrong.

It is part of life as you say, and there are people I know who talk about it as though Iwas a freak because I dont go along with it and dont want to talk about it.

I guess some Catholics want to genuinely learn as to whether or not it is OK by the Church.

For me it is wrong and I am happy to agree to differ.

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PostPosted: 24 Apr 2010 05:14 
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David,

I think the point is that oral sex would be a kind of foreplay that leads ultimately to intercourse. When it is intended as an end in itself, it is no longer procreative either in its "design" or in its application to a particular couple.

By its very nature, oral sex is not procreative. By its very nature, intercourse is. That's the distinction. Even for infertile couples, the expectation is that the culminating act of the marital embrace would be, by its nature, both procreative and unitive.

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PostPosted: 24 Apr 2010 06:52 
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The marital act has 2 purposes, neither of which is met by the means described in the original post.

When openness to life is not an issue, we should look at the unifying aspect of the marital act. Whatever happens along the way, the final act is two equals coming together as such, not one person serving the other.

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PostPosted: 24 Apr 2010 06:53 
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christian dane wrote:
Is it also wrong then for a woman to arouse her husband by massaging his chest or with caresses? Is all touch wrong, if it is a means to arouse the husband? Is hugging wrong? Is arousing touch of any kind wrong? Is a man equally forbidden to arouse with touch? Of any kind?

How should sex work if one follows this principle fully?

God bless.

Jesper

Jesper,
There is nothing wrong with pleasure during marital intimacy. The Church teaches that it is a good thing. There is a problem, however, when pleasure becomes a goal in itself. The couple should focus on expressing their love and closeness rather than seeking pleasure. But there is plenty of pleasure that will occur unsought.

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PostPosted: 24 Apr 2010 07:02 
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LASaxman wrote:
JayneK wrote:
This is the standard answer that I have seen from Catholic sources. As I understand it, this also applies to fertile couples. The question of fertility is not relevant. What matters is that the marital act be completed in a way that is open to life.

I do not understand how the act can be "open to life" if there is no possibility of conception.


Because GOD can make an ovary that doesn't work kick out one more egg, and he can make a uterus that "cannot" function, function, because God can make Sarah pregnant in her 90's and Abraham over 100 and because NO sexual activity is licit if it fails to complete the act in a way that cooperates with whatever GOD might decide to allow to happen.

So quite simply if one cannot have intercourse for whatever reason (high risk pregnancy perhaps? or just discomfort of pregnancy) then no sexual act is licit.

All excuses that say "but it is impossible" inherently take God out of the equation and are thus a form of justification for sin whether the speaker recognizes that fact or not.

God can make pregnancy even where it is "impossible" so man must never treat sex as anything but potentially fertile.

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PostPosted: 24 Apr 2010 07:11 
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christian dane wrote:
Is it also wrong then for a woman to arouse her husband by massaging his chest or with caresses? Is all touch wrong, if it is a means to arouse the husband? Is hugging wrong? Is arousing touch of any kind wrong? Is a man equally forbidden to arouse with touch? Of any kind?

How should sex work if one follows this principle fully?

God bless.

Jesper


Now this is just disingenuous. It seems to assume all physical affection is sexual in nature which it clearly is not.

This particular discussion is based on the example in the first post dealing with a question about the licitness of oral sex; the query being if it is OK for a spouse to pleasure the other to ejaculation/orgasm with no intention of intercourse. This objectifies the persons involved and is not licit for that reason; this is not procreative and thus is not licit for that reason; and this is selfish and thus not unitive and is again, not licit for that reason.

The answer is NEVER.

As for your examples, if these things led to a completion of the sexual act in any manner other than intercourse--then no, it would not be licit.

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PostPosted: 24 Apr 2010 09:19 
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I think we've taken this as far as we can, since the more graphic aspects are best left to other websites.

I would suggest that anyone wanting additional information on this and related topics should look for good, reliable writings on Pope John Paul II's Theology of the Body

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PostPosted: 24 Apr 2010 13:24 
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Let me add... good posts everyone who answered the questions posed! Job well done. Thanks.

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